Why are so many Greco-Roman words ended up with -us or -os?

Why are so many Greco-Roman words ended up with -us or -os?

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  1. 2 years ago
    Anonymous

    it sounds alpha
    when barbarians crushed medcucks their languages became splintered and sissified as they are today

    • 2 years ago
      Anonymous

      germaBlack person barbarians used to end their words in -az, for example Odin was Wōđanaz

    • 2 years ago
      Anonymous

      im greek and my name ends with -os
      kope

      • 2 years ago
        Anonymous

        Mehmetos is in odd name.

        • 2 years ago
          Anonymous

          seething
          malding even

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            better than being a seedling of a muslim even

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            projecting

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            Better than having to dial 8

      • 2 years ago
        Anonymous

        Inb4 Paolos Papadopoulos

        • 2 years ago
          Anonymous

          It could be anything. Greek is a gendered language so 90% of all male words end in -o or -os.

        • 2 years ago
          Anonymous

          Alexios?

          Nope, it's a surname of Dionysus

      • 2 years ago
        Anonymous

        Alexios?

      • 2 years ago
        Anonymous

        Greek today are just one step away from being turkish Black folk

    • 2 years ago
      Anonymous

      Carlos.

  2. 2 years ago
    Anonymous

    for me it's -ia

  3. 2 years ago
    Anonymous

    SVS
    AMOGVS

    • 2 years ago
      Anonymous

      bump

  4. 2 years ago
    Anonymous

    I'm guessing case endings? that's why basically every akkadian noun ends in -um, -am, -im
    it sounds autistic and I fricking hate it.

    • 2 years ago
      Anonymous

      Imagine if Iraqis still spoke it, I hate ayrabcucks so fricking much.

      • 2 years ago
        Anonymous

        Akkadian died out 1000 years before the Arab conquests; you should be blaming Aramaic, not Arabic.

        • 2 years ago
          Anonymous

          Arameans didn’t military invade Assyria like the Islamic Arabs did.

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            That whole region is a mess of invasions for centuries. Medes, Babylonians, Scythians and Persians all worked together to overthrow the Assyrians at one point.

      • 2 years ago
        Anonymous

        Classical Arabic has case endings in -un, -an, -in.

        • 2 years ago
          Anonymous

          Ahmad al-Jallad has been good on this. These case endings may have been pre-Classical. Unsure about other Semitic languages.

  5. 2 years ago
    Anonymous

    Case endings

  6. 2 years ago
    Anonymous

    It's a case ending in Latin. Therefore nearly every single word does have an -us ending. They also have an -um, -orum and so on ending as well.

  7. 2 years ago
    Anonymous

    I tried to learn Latin a while ago, and this is what put off me from it. All the words sound samey and too long. They use prepositions anyway, so a lot of this feels like pointless bloat. I can see why all the Romance languages got rid of this shit.

    • 2 years ago
      Anonymous

      can someone give me the brainletpill on what nominative, genitive, dative, accusative, whatever abl is, and vocational are?

      • 2 years ago
        Anonymous

        >nominative
        subject of a verb
        >genitive
        X's
        >dative
        indirect object
        >accusative
        direct object
        >ablative
        from X
        >vocative
        addressing X

        • 2 years ago
          Anonymous

          So:
          >the [nominative] eats the food
          >[genitive's] food
          >the [dative] was eaten
          >i eat [accusative]
          >i suffered [ablative's] wrath
          >i refuse [vocative's] offer
          Is that correct?

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            >>the [nominative] eats the food
            Correct
            >>[genitive's] food
            Correct
            >>the [dative] was eaten
            I give food to the [dative]
            >>i eat [accusative]
            Correct
            >>i suffered [ablative's] wrath
            I come from [ablative]
            >>i refuse [vocative's] offer
            Hey [vocative], how are you?
            That said, the cases have other uses to, e.g. certain prepositions require certain cases.

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            Right, I fricked up and thought dative was passive. I only know languages with passive.
            So if you wanted to say "the gladiator from the coliseum it would be "coliseo gladius"? coliseum taking the ablative form?

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            I don't actually speak Latin. I think you need a preposition as well, but yes, the noun should be in the ablative.

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            Thanks, cases always frick me up as a native English speaker.

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            Ablative originally meant what

            >>the [nominative] eats the food
            Correct
            >>[genitive's] food
            Correct
            >>the [dative] was eaten
            I give food to the [dative]
            >>i eat [accusative]
            Correct
            >>i suffered [ablative's] wrath
            I come from [ablative]
            >>i refuse [vocative's] offer
            Hey [vocative], how are you?
            That said, the cases have other uses to, e.g. certain prepositions require certain cases.

            said, but in classical latin it absorbed the instrumental and locative cases, so you can also find:
            >>I live in [ablative/locative] (there are some exceptions)
            >>I play with [ablative/instrumental]

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            Gladius means sword anon. Gladiator is gladiator

            "Gladiator coliseo" is how you say "the gladiator from the colosseum." You can add the preposition "ab," meaning "from" to specify how the ablative is being used because it can also be used in different ways.
            "Gladio necare" means to kill with the sword. In this sentence "Gladio" is in the ablative case, but it is being used as the ablative of means. If you're just starting out learning latin, most beginner courses use prepositions to clarify the use of the ablative case.

      • 2 years ago
        Anonymous

        Nomative is the subject of the verb
        Gentive is a belonging word, so it belongs to the subject usually
        Dative is indirect, I think of it as being connected to the accusative
        accusative is the direct object
        ablative is basically just prepositions like 'to'
        vocative is addressing

        • 2 years ago
          Anonymous

          >ablative is basically just prepositions like 'to'
          the object of 'to' takes the accusative case.
          "ad astra"
          "ad nauseam"

    • 2 years ago
      Anonymous

      What is this that roareth thus?
      Can it be a Motor Bus?
      Yes, the smell and hideous hum
      Indicat Motorem Bum!
      Implet in the Corn and High
      Terror me Motoris Bi:
      Bo Motori clamitabo
      Ne Motore caedar a Bo—
      Dative be or Ablative
      So thou only let us live:—
      Whither shall thy victims flee?
      Spare us, spare us, Motor Be!
      Thus I sang; and still anigh
      Came in hordes Motores Bi,
      Et complebat omne forum
      Copia Motorum Borum.
      How shall wretches live like us
      Cincti Bis Motoribus?
      Domine, defende nos
      Contra hos Motores Bos!

      • 2 years ago
        Anonymous

        bump

    • 2 years ago
      Anonymous

      Once you memorize the declensions the annoyance disappears. The whole case system thing is just a more comprehensive version of what we do with words like "I/mine/me"

  8. 2 years ago
    Anonymous

    >angloids can't comprehend cases
    tends to happen when a language muttifies
    you hate to see it

  9. 2 years ago
    Anonymous

    Grammatical case endings inherited from Proto-Indo-European. Is the same reason why a lot of old nordic words end in -r like vikingr

    • 2 years ago
      Anonymous

      protogerm *-iz

  10. 2 years ago
    Anonymous

    Why do the U letters have V in them and what happens when there is a word with a v and u like would vu become vv. I don't get it

    • 2 years ago
      Anonymous

      They had no U's. The Latin alphabet didn't include it. There's also Y and Z which were Greek letters introduced, so they don't really use it in Latin words.

    • 2 years ago
      Anonymous

      >Why do the U letters have V in them
      Latin didn't have the letter U, they used V for their "oo" sound. So Gaius Julius Caesar would've been spelt GAIVS IVLIVS CAESAR.
      >and what happens when there is a word with a v and u like would vu become vv.
      Latin doesn't have a W letter either. So when the V comes before another vowel it makes a W sound. So you'd say "vulgata" like "wulgata."

  11. 2 years ago
    Anonymous

    It comes from Aryan -as.

    • 2 years ago
      Anonymous

      >Aryan
      Only Indo-Iranians called themselves "Aryans." The demonym of the old Indo-Europeans has been lost to time.

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