Why are so many Greco-Roman words ended up with -us or -os?
Why are so many Greco-Roman words ended up with -us or -os?
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it sounds alpha
when barbarians crushed medcucks their languages became splintered and sissified as they are today
germanagger barbarians used to end their words in -az, for example Odin was Wōđanaz
im greek and my name ends with -os
kope
Mehmetos is in odd name.
seething
malding even
better than being a seedling of a muslim even
projecting
Better than having to dial 8
Inb4 Paolos Papadopoulos
It could be anything. Greek is a gendered language so 90% of all male words end in -o or -os.
Nope, it's a surname of Dionysus
Alexios?
Greek today are just one step away from being turkish naggers
Carlos.
for me it's -ia
SVS
AMOGVS
bump
I'm guessing case endings? that's why basically every akkadian noun ends in -um, -am, -im
it sounds autistic and I fucking hate it.
Imagine if Iraqis still spoke it, I hate ayrabcucks so fucking much.
Akkadian died out 1000 years before the Arab conquests; you should be blaming Aramaic, not Arabic.
Arameans didn’t military invade Assyria like the Islamic Arabs did.
That whole region is a mess of invasions for centuries. Medes, Babylonians, Scythians and Persians all worked together to overthrow the Assyrians at one point.
Classical Arabic has case endings in -un, -an, -in.
Ahmad al-Jallad has been good on this. These case endings may have been pre-Classical. Unsure about other Semitic languages.
Case endings
It's a case ending in Latin. Therefore nearly every single word does have an -us ending. They also have an -um, -orum and so on ending as well.
I tried to learn Latin a while ago, and this is what put off me from it. All the words sound samey and too long. They use prepositions anyway, so a lot of this feels like pointless bloat. I can see why all the Romance languages got rid of this shit.
can someone give me the brainletpill on what nominative, genitive, dative, accusative, whatever abl is, and vocational are?
>nominative
subject of a verb
>genitive
X's
>dative
indirect object
>accusative
direct object
>ablative
from X
>vocative
addressing X
So:
>the [nominative] eats the food
>[genitive's] food
>the [dative] was eaten
>i eat [accusative]
>i suffered [ablative's] wrath
>i refuse [vocative's] offer
Is that correct?
>>the [nominative] eats the food
Correct
>>[genitive's] food
Correct
>>the [dative] was eaten
I give food to the [dative]
>>i eat [accusative]
Correct
>>i suffered [ablative's] wrath
I come from [ablative]
>>i refuse [vocative's] offer
Hey [vocative], how are you?
That said, the cases have other uses to, e.g. certain prepositions require certain cases.
Right, I fucked up and thought dative was passive. I only know languages with passive.
So if you wanted to say "the gladiator from the coliseum it would be "coliseo gladius"? coliseum taking the ablative form?
I don't actually speak Latin. I think you need a preposition as well, but yes, the noun should be in the ablative.
Thanks, cases always fuck me up as a native English speaker.
Ablative originally meant what
said, but in classical latin it absorbed the instrumental and locative cases, so you can also find:
>>I live in [ablative/locative] (there are some exceptions)
>>I play with [ablative/instrumental]
Gladius means sword anon. Gladiator is gladiator
"Gladiator coliseo" is how you say "the gladiator from the colosseum." You can add the preposition "ab," meaning "from" to specify how the ablative is being used because it can also be used in different ways.
"Gladio necare" means to kill with the sword. In this sentence "Gladio" is in the ablative case, but it is being used as the ablative of means. If you're just starting out learning latin, most beginner courses use prepositions to clarify the use of the ablative case.
Nomative is the subject of the verb
Gentive is a belonging word, so it belongs to the subject usually
Dative is indirect, I think of it as being connected to the accusative
accusative is the direct object
ablative is basically just prepositions like 'to'
vocative is addressing
>ablative is basically just prepositions like 'to'
the object of 'to' takes the accusative case.
"ad astra"
"ad nauseam"
What is this that roareth thus?
Can it be a Motor Bus?
Yes, the smell and hideous hum
Indicat Motorem Bum!
Implet in the Corn and High
Terror me Motoris Bi:
Bo Motori clamitabo
Ne Motore caedar a Bo—
Dative be or Ablative
So thou only let us live:—
Whither shall thy victims flee?
Spare us, spare us, Motor Be!
Thus I sang; and still anigh
Came in hordes Motores Bi,
Et complebat omne forum
Copia Motorum Borum.
How shall wretches live like us
Cincti Bis Motoribus?
Domine, defende nos
Contra hos Motores Bos!
bump
Once you memorize the declensions the annoyance disappears. The whole case system thing is just a more comprehensive version of what we do with words like "I/mine/me"
>angloids can't comprehend cases
tends to happen when a language muttifies
you hate to see it
Grammatical case endings inherited from Proto-Indo-European. Is the same reason why a lot of old nordic words end in -r like vikingr
protogerm *-iz
Why do the U letters have V in them and what happens when there is a word with a v and u like would vu become vv. I don't get it
They had no U's. The Latin alphabet didn't include it. There's also Y and Z which were Greek letters introduced, so they don't really use it in Latin words.
>Why do the U letters have V in them
Latin didn't have the letter U, they used V for their "oo" sound. So Gaius Julius Caesar would've been spelt GAIVS IVLIVS CAESAR.
>and what happens when there is a word with a v and u like would vu become vv.
Latin doesn't have a W letter either. So when the V comes before another vowel it makes a W sound. So you'd say "vulgata" like "wulgata."
It comes from Aryan -as.
>Aryan
Only Indo-Iranians called themselves "Aryans." The demonym of the old Indo-Europeans has been lost to time.