In the Medieval period, what separate the rich states from the poor ones? It wasn't just the population

In the Medieval period, what separate the rich states from the poor ones? It wasn't just the population

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  1. 2 years ago
    Anonymous

    Ports mostly

    • 2 years ago
      Anonymous

      This

      Being on a trade route made all the difference

      Also location: if the place had a mine or some sort of specialty (spice, salt, etc)

      • 2 years ago
        Anonymous

        Ports mostly

        So why was Venice richer than Hispanic states?

        • 2 years ago
          Anonymous

          Ports mostly

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            Venice has one port
            Hispania has many

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            No... Venice had many colonies... and Hispanis is not a medieval state. Maybe you mean Aragon, Castille, Navarre, and they were all pretty rich and influential

        • 2 years ago
          Anonymous

          Venice had more ports... but they were not that richer anyway

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            Venice is one city; how can they have more than one port?

          • 2 years ago
            Anonymous

            They had colonies

  2. 2 years ago
    Anonymous

    Least Christian = Richer
    More Christian = Poorer

    • 2 years ago
      Anonymous

      Africa, Asia and the Americas must have been swimming in ducats

      • 2 years ago
        Anonymous

        >asia
        yes
        >americas
        yes

        all superior to non italian medival c**ts

        • 2 years ago
          Anonymous

          Delusional

  3. 2 years ago
    Yang

    If they have more people there is more to eat.

  4. 2 years ago
    Anonymous

    The Mediterranean was around 90% farmers and 10% urbanized, polities like Venice controlled cities and trading ports and thus had a higher level of urbanization, importing their grain and exporting manufactured goods or supporting services like shipping goods, as a result they were wealthier than other polities, pound for pound. However because they were so dependent on foreign trade and interconnected with the rest of the economy in Italy and elsewhere it is debatable if they were inherently more "developed" in the modern sense.

    • 2 years ago
      Anonymous

      >90% farmers and 10% urbanized
      compare to the rest of europe was a lot

  5. 2 years ago
    Anonymous

    What do you think?
    You western European cities that are full of fortified merchant houses. In contrast eastern European tribal villages only have palisades protecting them

  6. 2 years ago
    Anonymous

    It was the industry and the access to commercial routes.
    Northern Italy has always been very rich because they imported raw goods from asia and northern europe and produced manufactured ones with it like israeliteellery, clothes or sails that they exported making a lot of profits.

    Venice was also almost impossible to invade and only Napoleon managed to take it down while most cities got looted/destroyed rather frequently which always led to great loss of human and materia, capital. Meawhile Venice could compound its gains for more than a millenia.

  7. 2 years ago
    Anonymous

    that map is so pretty

  8. 2 years ago
    Anonymous

    Taxation. Most feudal states had lots of wealth around, but the state was unable to tax it. With stronger tax laws and a few mines, even small or poor kingdoms could punch far above their weight.

  9. 2 years ago
    Anonymous

    This will be lost in spam but the answer is simple. Gdp=tourism, but in the past it was iron. The few states based on trade only did it to obtain metals.
    If you graph the iron reserves of europe it becomes very obvious why countries were wealthy and his will give a different explanation as this is a board of morons.

    • 2 years ago
      Anonymous

      >t.

  10. 2 years ago
    Anonymous

    Ships, the more ships you build the more advanced, technically

    • 2 years ago
      Anonymous

      The thread itself is meaningless and doesn't define wealth. Spain was wealthy but weaker than England because of iron. It just depends what you mean and gdp=tourism crushes it anyway.

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