In the Medieval period, what separate the rich states from the poor ones? It wasn't just the population
In the Medieval period, what separate the rich states from the poor ones? It wasn't just the population
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Ports mostly
This
Being on a trade route made all the difference
Also location: if the place had a mine or some sort of specialty (spice, salt, etc)
So why was Venice richer than Hispanic states?
Ports mostly
Venice has one port
Hispania has many
No... Venice had many colonies... and Hispanis is not a medieval state. Maybe you mean Aragon, Castille, Navarre, and they were all pretty rich and influential
Venice had more ports... but they were not that richer anyway
Venice is one city; how can they have more than one port?
They had colonies
Least Christian = Richer
More Christian = Poorer
Africa, Asia and the Americas must have been swimming in ducats
>asia
yes
>americas
yes
all superior to non italian medival cunts
Delusional
If they have more people there is more to eat.
The Mediterranean was around 90% farmers and 10% urbanized, polities like Venice controlled cities and trading ports and thus had a higher level of urbanization, importing their grain and exporting manufactured goods or supporting services like shipping goods, as a result they were wealthier than other polities, pound for pound. However because they were so dependent on foreign trade and interconnected with the rest of the economy in Italy and elsewhere it is debatable if they were inherently more "developed" in the modern sense.
>90% farmers and 10% urbanized
compare to the rest of europe was a lot
What do you think?
You western European cities that are full of fortified merchant houses. In contrast eastern European tribal villages only have palisades protecting them
It was the industry and the access to commercial routes.
Northern Italy has always been very rich because they imported raw goods from asia and northern europe and produced manufactured ones with it like israeliteellery, clothes or sails that they exported making a lot of profits.
Venice was also almost impossible to invade and only Napoleon managed to take it down while most cities got looted/destroyed rather frequently which always led to great loss of human and materia, capital. Meawhile Venice could compound its gains for more than a millenia.
that map is so pretty
Taxation. Most feudal states had lots of wealth around, but the state was unable to tax it. With stronger tax laws and a few mines, even small or poor kingdoms could punch far above their weight.
This will be lost in spam but the answer is simple. Gdp=tourism, but in the past it was iron. The few states based on trade only did it to obtain metals.
If you graph the iron reserves of europe it becomes very obvious why countries were wealthy and his will give a different explanation as this is a board of retards.
>t.
Ships, the more ships you build the more advanced, technically
The thread itself is meaningless and doesn't define wealth. Spain was wealthy but weaker than England because of iron. It just depends what you mean and gdp=tourism crushes it anyway.