Did any English people settle in Aquitaine durning the Angevin "empire"?

Did any English people settle in Aquitaine durning the Angevin "empire"?

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  1. 1 year ago
    Anonymous

    No
    They weren’t even considered the same realm. Aquitaine was still subject to France and the English kings were vassals of the king of France in their capacity as Dukes of Aquitaine.

  2. 1 year ago
    Anonymous

    In case you aren't aware, the Angevin Empire was Western France owning England and not the other way around (hence the name)
    Whole thing was ruled from Chinon

    • 1 year ago
      Anonymous

      No, not England itself. ONLY the English king's lands within areas which are vassals to the French crown in modern day France. King Philip IV I believe had 4 kings which he could claim as "vassals" in the context of lands that fall under the Kingdom of France.

      • 1 year ago
        Anonymous

        Not him but there’s a big anti-English boner when it comes to Franco-Anglo relations at this time. There’s lots of misinfo always in every thread etc

        Like you said, the concept of vassalage and what was technically the kings ownership is hard to understand and it’s much easier just to say “England was French”

        https://i.imgur.com/ruFcK6m.jpg

        Did any English people settle in Aquitaine durning the Angevin "empire"?

        Nah, colonization like that really didn’t occur. In Roman times it did occur. But in this time,the Angevin domains weren’t really a foreign land that needed to be colonized.

        In case you aren't aware, the Angevin Empire was Western France owning England and not the other way around (hence the name)
        Whole thing was ruled from Chinon

        In England, the king officially had ownership of all the land. In France, the land was divided among dukes. So no. The Angevin part was just a seperate domain the king owned, which is why it still was under “vassalage” of the French king. England wasn’t under vassalage of the French king

        • 1 year ago
          Anonymous

          >England wasn’t under vassalage of the French king

          No one implied this
          England was owned by the French family that owned Western France (and which was rival to the French king)
          Pic related, the Plantagenet expansion. England was the latest addition.

          • 1 year ago
            Anonymous

            Henry II was still the great-grandson of William the Conqueror and through Matilda and his Grandfather Henry I, he is King of England. If Henry the II never had western france, he would still be King of England. There is no nation of France. Kinda important for people to understand that it was just some French family.

          • 1 year ago
            Anonymous

            that it was NOT just some french family*

          • 1 year ago
            Anonymous

            He was also descended from Saint Margaret of Scotland, who was descended from Alfred the Great.

          • 1 year ago
            Anonymous

            Henry II also has descent from Alfred the Great via Mathilda of Flanders as well.

          • 1 year ago
            Anonymous

            Yes, but Henry the first's marriage to Matilda of Scotland was a deliberate attempt to gain legitimacy by tying himself to the House of Wessex.

        • 1 year ago
          Anonymous

          >it’s much easier just to say “England was French”
          It depends what time we are talking about here. English courts by Edward III were very different from French royal domain courts. The differences in language and culture was becoming a bigger issue, was it not? Government and land tenure was vastly different as well.

          • 1 year ago
            Anonymous

            Edward III was born a century after the end of the Angevin Empire

          • 1 year ago
            Anonymous

            >gascony

        • 1 year ago
          Anonymous

          Didn't any English lords ever go to Gascony to rule in person? It was ebtirelly local lords?

          I know they didn't colonize it but I asumed tuere was sonething like the British Raj at least

          • 1 year ago
            Anonymous

            There were influxes of English nobles during the Hundred Years War for the chevaunchees that were launched from Gascony. But the majority were Gascon nobility. The Gascons preferred English control which granted them direct access to the English court and markets for wine than centralization of France.

          • 1 year ago
            Anonymous

            There were influxes of English nobles during the Hundred Years War for the chevaunchees that were launched from Gascony. But the majority were Gascon nobility. The Gascons preferred English control which granted them direct access to the English court and markets for wine than centralization of France.

            These "English" nobles were French in the first place

          • 1 year ago
            Anonymous

            Normans started marrying with local women immediately and some Anglo Saxon nobles up north kept their lands even after the harrying of the north like the Nevilles

          • 1 year ago
            Anonymous

            Define English, stupid
            Here's a hint: it's not french

          • 1 year ago
            Anonymous

            By the 14th century, those nobles assimilated into being English. The court language became English again in 1361.

          • 1 year ago
            Anonymous

            French speaking and based nobility had not been a significant feature of English political life since the 13th century. Let alone the 14th

          • 1 year ago
            Anonymous

            Eh, French culture and the language was still a good part of the Anglo-Norman elite and royalty but the loss of Normandy did accelerate acceptance of Middle English and English customs. Edward Longshanks was the 1st post-Conquest King who felt English and was more concerned of overlordship over all of Britain hence his wars of conquest over Wales and the takeover of Scotland than regaining the Angevin holdings of his ancestors.

            Im not French so I don’t care about the contest between frogs and bongs to know which ones got the biggest dick. But as a frenchspeaker it’s really easy for us to learn English because it’s mostly some French with a moronic version of dutch accent. And yes Richard cœur de lion was a French ruling over England, same for most of that dynasty. English people was only created during the reign of Henry VIII. Before that no English people but some angles jutes saxons or Briton being ruled by franco normands aristocracy

            >English people was only created during the reign of Henry VIII. Before that no English people but some angles jutes saxons or Briton being ruled by franco normands aristocracy
            The frick are you talking about? There was already an English people and identity once Aethelstan conquered Northumbria and was the 1st king of all the Anglo-Saxon realms. What the Normans and Angevins did was mutate the English language and culture into something that was more aligned with the mainland. For better or worse, England owes a good deal of its development from the Conquest and Henry Curtmantle's triumph over his uncle Stephen. But you have no fricking clue what you're talking about pre-1066.

  3. 1 year ago
    Anonymous

    No, but apparently normandy and brittany have about 40-50% british and irish DNA and france as a whole has about 30-20%.
    For brittany i would assume is from bretons, for normandy probably english

    • 1 year ago
      Anonymous

      no shit, they're all celtic mutts

      • 1 year ago
        Anonymous

        >celtic
        the british celts weren't the same as the french Gauls.

    • 1 year ago
      Anonymous

      Brittany was created from Britons escaping the Anglo Saxons

  4. 1 year ago
    Anonymous

    On a very limited scale, yes. There was cross-Channel settlement ever since the 1066 Conquest.

    While obviously Norman lords and knights became the new aristocracy in England, there were also commoners that had their own neighborhoods and streets in the larger English towns. And surprisingly, there was Anglo-Saxon in Normandy in the large towns like Rouen and Caen (these were the merchants and burghers of course).

    For Aquitaine, you had middling and low-level English administrators work under the Gascon nobles and clerks. And occasionally some merchant families, which in turn there were significant Gason wine merchants in London and other cities.

    • 1 year ago
      Anonymous

      Any books on this subject anon?

      • 1 year ago
        Anonymous

        Read any book on the Hundred Years War. They'll explain about Gascony's link to Plantagenet England.

  5. 1 year ago
    Anonymous

    Im not French so I don’t care about the contest between frogs and bongs to know which ones got the biggest dick. But as a frenchspeaker it’s really easy for us to learn English because it’s mostly some French with a moronic version of dutch accent. And yes Richard cœur de lion was a French ruling over England, same for most of that dynasty. English people was only created during the reign of Henry VIII. Before that no English people but some angles jutes saxons or Briton being ruled by franco normands aristocracy

  6. 1 year ago
    Anonymous

    Yes, mostly merchants who would benefit from the tax exemptions for both selling and buying wine that could be gained from being a freeman of London and of Bordeaux.

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